Archive for November, 2006

Sin boldly! (Or, the lesser of two evils)

Wednesday, November 29th, 2006

Is it always possible to act ethically? That is, in all instances in which a decision must be made, is there always (at least) an option that is ethical? Martin Luther once famously exhorted Christians to “sin boldly,” and an undeserved reputation for antinomianism has been hung on Lutherans ever since. What Luther was getting at was the following view: there are some times in life in which we will be presented with several alternatives for what we ought to do, and none of them will be right, ethically speaking. It is in those situations that Luther instructs us to sin boldly, that is, to choose (what we believe, at least, to be) the least or lesser of the evils that present themselves to us. (more…)

Is the Biblical concept of sin co-extensional with the concept of moral wrongness?

Monday, November 27th, 2006

The Bible talks a lot about sin. It seems to be something that everyone does, that is in some sense “bad” and is punishable. In ethics we talk about actions being morally wrong. Are the two co-extensional? There is some reason to think that they come apart. For example, all sins seem to be punishable, but the appropriateness of punishment seems to track blameworthiness, and blameworthiness comes apart from moral wrongness. However, if sinning is not tantamount to doing something morally wrong, why should we care about whether or not we sin?

So, what is the difference? Are there some sins that are not morally wrong? Or are there some actions that are morally wrong but not sins? Or both?

A Molinistic Counterexample to Beta 2

Wednesday, November 22nd, 2006

I happen to know that there are a few Molinists about divine foreknowledge among us who are fans of the consequence argument. I don’t think that this is a consistent position, because I think that if Molnism is true, there are counterexamples to the inference principle that the consequence argument relies upon.

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Simultaneous overdetermination in Mele & Robb

Wednesday, November 22nd, 2006

In the Frankfurt-style example proposed by Mele & Robb, Black has initiated a process P in Bob’s brain that will deterministically result in choice C at time t2, unless Bob freely, indeterministically chooses C at time t2. (Call Bob’s indeterministic deliberative process “X”) Why will P give way to X at t2? Mele & Robb just stipulate this. No good reason is given, except that it is possible. I suppose that is all they need to show. But it may be impossible. We can’t say that the neuron(s) that activate C can somehow recognize and favor an indeterministic process over a deterministic one, can we? Wouldn’t an indeterministic causal chain be empirically indistinguishable from a deterministic one? Can anyone think of a possible way for P to defer to X?

Why care about immunity to flip-flopping?

Thursday, November 16th, 2006

Say I is the property being immune to flip-flopping. It is the case that a theory has I iff the theory is immune to flip-flopping iff the theory is immune to revising its metaphysical principles in light of later empirical discoveries.

Why care if a theory has I? I say we should care only if having I is truth-conducive. Specifically, we should only care that compatibilism has I and incompatibalism doesn’t have I only if some theory’s having I and some theory’s not having I makes the former (ceteris paribus) more likely to be true. (more…)

Listen to the Republic on your iPod!

Tuesday, November 14th, 2006

Podcast information here.

(Also see “Plato’s Republic meets Reservoir Dogs,” if you don’t mind a bit of profanity mixed in with your hilarity.)

Whither guidance control?

Tuesday, November 14th, 2006

The more I think about it, the less “guidance” control seems more like an instance of the use of the notion of control in such a way as to assuage our intuitive need for it in any discussion of moral responsibility. To be situated in just such a way that one only seems to be causally effective in the world, is not control in any serious sense. If I am at the controls of a plane, and I happened to believe that I were flying the plane, while the auto-pilot was doing all of the work the entire time I was “flying” the plane, I don’t see how I would have control of the plane in any way. Control, as I understand it, involves one’s being able to act in such a way that the objects upon which one’s control is exercised can be manipulated to conform to one’s intentions. In the cases that F&R provide of guidance control, such as the example of the student driver, the “agent” (or relevant mechanism, if you prefer) is situated in such a way that, while they may believe themselves to be effectual, they in fact are not. The Frankfurt examples, such as the original assassin, are a better formulation of guidance control, but I would pursue the “flicker of freedom” strategy Fischer denies and claim that regulative control is actually present.

I’m having a harder time accepting guidance control as a kind of control at all, and now F&R’s language seems misleading. Other thoughts, intuitions, and philosophical explanations would be very welcome. Especially if you can fix my understanding of my control such that it does not involve one’s having any actual (effective) ability to manipulate objects to conform to one’s intentions.

Philosophy journals: linked tables of contents

Monday, November 13th, 2006

There’s a nice site that lists recent titles from a lot of the good journals. So this site, together with the Blackwell page and the RSS feeds that a lot of journals offer, should keep you up to date.

Wronging Yourself

Sunday, November 12th, 2006

I wonder if it’s possible to wrong yourself in a way such that you are blameworthy for wronging yourself.  I wonder if

(W) S wrongs S and S is blameworthy for wronging S

is necessarily false.  It seems to me that on a libertarian conception of what it is to wrong someone, (W) is necessarily false.  Consider that if I punch myself, then in order for me to be blameworthy for doing the punching, I must meet a certain degree of control and awareness about the punching.  But the satisfaction of this requirement implies that I have given consent to myself to punch myself.  Furthermore, it seems that any case of one’s putatively being blameworthy for wronging himself is like the above case.  It seems rational to conclude that (W) is impossible.

Questions:

1) Is my argument successful?  If not, why not?

2) Supposing libertarianism’s false, what other argument could there be for it to make sense that I wrong myself and am blameworthy for it?

3) If (W) is possibly true, then is it possible for somebody to forgive himself?

Mother Drowns Kids to Send them to Heaven

Saturday, November 11th, 2006

“LaShuan Harris took her three children on a train from Oakland into San Francisco on Oct. 19, 2005. She bought the little boys hot dogs, and they walked along Fisherman’s Wharf.  Then Harris undressed the three boys, ages 16 months, 2 and 6, and dropped them one at a time over the low railing into chilly San Francisco Bay, police say.  She knew they couldn’t swim and thought she was sending them to heaven. God had commanded her to sacrifice her three boys, her most precious possessions…” A link to the full story is here.

What’s going on here?  Did she do something wrong?  If so, what?  Is she blameworthy?  If so, why?  Would God ever command such a thing (think Abraham and Isaac if you’re a Christian)?  If so, what ought one to do (morally speaking)?