Consider:
1) If I morally ought not to x, then I prima facie ought not to desire to do x.
I’m not sure about exactly what sort of “ought” is in the consequent of (1). But it seems plausible that someone who desires to rape, murder, steal, etc. - someone who desires to do wrong acts - is in a state they ought not to be in. Consider also:
2) If I morally ought not to x, then I prima facie morally ought to avoid situations in which I will desire to do x.
Of course, there is a connection between (1) and (2). (Does (2) follow from (1)?) And I added the “prima facie” since I presume these moral oughts are defeasible.
Two questions:
a) What is the “ought” in the consequent in (1) supposed to be?
b) Are (1) and (2) true?
I have some more thoughts, but I’ll start with these.