Archive for the ‘Metaphysics’ Category

Grossness

Monday, November 3rd, 2008

I’m wondering whether the following analysis of correct:

S’s utterance of the sentence ”x is gross” is true if and only if S has a disgusting feel upon considering x.

On this view, the truth value of grossness ascriptions is dependent on who makes them.  By “disgusting feel” I am refering to that feeling we are all aware of, the feeling you get when you think about, say, vomit.

Two other options:

1) grossness ascriptions have no truth value (and are just expressions of emotion akin to “boo” or “yay!”);

2) or grossness ascriptions have an objective truth value, i.e., the truth conditions for the ascriptions are invariant from speaker to speaker.

I think that the option expressed at the top is the best.  Any thoughts?

Virtual Worlds

Sunday, November 2nd, 2008

What is the truth value of “My avatar in Doom has hands”? The world of Doom seems pretty real when I’m playing it, but it only exists as pixels on the screen and bits in my computer’s memory. Yet including my avatar’s hands and other game-world objects in my ontology makes it easier to make predictions about what’s going to happen in the game world: “If I punch that zombie with my fist, it will kill him.” So would you say that my avatar has hands, or would you say that my avatar does not have hands? Or some Option C?

Impossible Properties?

Sunday, September 7th, 2008

This post is primarily aimed towards those in the metaphysics seminar, but anybody’s comments are welcome.  Should realists believe that there are universals such as square circles?  Does anybody know what the main views are on this?

Social Bundle Theory of Identity or “Part of me died”

Monday, September 1st, 2008

One afternoon in high school, I dropped my keys when unlocking my door. Let’s say that I don’t remember this and that nobody else was around to see it. It has no effect on my subconscious. It has no biological effect on me either, that is, it’s unlike dreamless sleep. This event has essentially no effect on how I acted after it happened. Is this particular experience important to my identity? If this event was somehow removed from my past, would I be the same person or would I be someone different?

Before answering these questions, we must realize that there are probably thousands of experiences like this that make up a large chronological part of our lives. Now let’s say that there was someone who was driving by at the time and saw me drop my keys and remembers it vividly for one reason or another. Even if I were to ask everyone who ever experienced any part of my life to put together the most detailed account of my life, there would clearly be some parts still missing. But then if my mother dies, a large number of experiences that I don’t remember and she does (changing my diaper, etc) would become unreachable.

If we did assume that events others remember which we do not are part of our identity (which is a fair assumption considering how much we don’t remember from our childhood), then would the saying “part of me died” when a person close to you dies be more accure than we think?

Johnston on Practice-Dependent Justification

Friday, June 27th, 2008

Mark Johnston thinks that there is a difference between a cloud and the molecules that constitute the cloud.  He thinks that there is a difference between an F and its F-shaped constituting matter.  For those who think that there is a difference, what could it be?  Johnston, as I read him, doesn’t feel a need to give an answer, and he thinks its an error to try to give an answer.  He writes that it is

the error of supposing that our practice of distinguishing Fs and their constituting matter and counting accordingly could only be justified if the distinction is secured by the independent metaphysics of the matter (Material Constitution, p. 58)

While Johnston speaks disparagingly of those who embrace this error, I still don’t understand why it’s an error.  The best I could make of Johnston’s take on how to justify the difference between an F and the F-shaped matter that constitutes it is that we talk in our ordinary language in such a way that it is useful to think that Fs and their F-shaped matters that constitute them are different.  But that doesn’t tell me at all how an F and its F-shaped matter are different.  It doesn’t tell me how the statue Goliath and the lump of clay that composes him is different.  Any help?

Property Individuation

Friday, June 27th, 2008

Are the following properties different?

1) the property being green

2) the property being green and being such that 1+1=2.

Semantics of Counterfactuals

Saturday, June 7th, 2008

I’m wondering about the following argument given by Plantinga:

the truth of p and q is not sufficient for the truth of the counterfactual if p then q.  This is a point on which the usual (Lewisian, Stalnakerian) semantics for counterfactuals is inadequate.  Consider quantum effects: perhaps in fact the photon went through the right slit rather than the left; that is not enough to entail that if it had gone through either slit, it would have gone through the right.  I toss the die; it comes up 5.  That is not sufficient to entail that if I had tossed the die, it would have come up 5.  The truth of a counterfactual requires not just that p and -q be false in fact; it is also necessary that even if things had been moderately different, it still wouldn’t have been the case that p and -q.  To put it in familiar semantical terms, the counterfactual is true only if there is no sufficiently close possible world in which p is true but q is not.  How close is sufficiently close?  That is of course a question without an answer; counterfactuals are in this way quite properly vague. (Warrant in Contemporary Epistemology, pp. 328-329)

I remember reading this passage a few years ago and being convinced, but for some reason, when I read it now, it doesn’t strike me as true.  It seems that the truth of p and q is sufficient for the truth of if p were true, then q would be true, and Plantinga’s counterexamples don’t seem intuitive to me.  Any thoughts?

Moral responsibility for coerced actions

Thursday, May 22nd, 2008

I think that there are some cases where people are morally responsible for coerced actions they perform. Consider the following:

Smith owns an expensive car which he is very proud of and very much wants to keep. Smith has a friend (Jones) who is not very well off and relies on his old pickup truck to support his family. A robber threatens Smith and tells him that unless he surrenders his car to the robber, the robber will destroy Jones’s truck. Smith (out of concern for his friend) allows the robber to take his prized automobile.

In this case it seems like Smith is praiseworthy (and thus responsible) for his coerced action. What do you guys think? Is Smith responsible? Is this a case of coercion?

Abstract Objects: Considerations in Favor

Friday, February 1st, 2008

I hear there has been some recent debate among Show-me’rs about abstract objects. So, I thought I’d mention a few considerations that make me think they exist. (I realize that the following may not be knockdown arguments in favor of the existence of abstract objects, but I think that they provide evidence that there are such things.)

1. Numbers. How are we to think about numbers if we don’t believe in abstract objects? One approach is to simply claim that numbers, for instance ‘3′ is simply a collection of three concrete things. However, this seems unsatisfactory because what do we say about numbers that are larger than any collection of concrete things? Do we deny that these numbers exist? If so, who gets to break the bad news to the math department?

2. There is also the old ‘one over many’ consideration. Roughly, it seems that many different concrete particulars can have what appears to be the same nature. Thus, it seems that these objects share something that makes it the case that they all have the same nature–a property. It sure seems like red apples and red trucks have something in common.

3. What do we say about the following pair of sentences? a) ‘It’s raining’ b) ‘Es regnet’ How do we explain the fact that these two sentences have the same meaning, if we do not claim that they express the same proposition?

Thoughts?

A common mistake about open theism

Saturday, January 12th, 2008

is to say that open theists, as a matter of definition, deny that God knows everything that will happen in the future. No doubt some open theists do deny this (such as, as far as I understand, Peter van Inwagen), but it isn’t entailed by the position. (I’ll set PvI style open theists to the side, for the purposes of this post.) But I see lots of folks making this mistake, including really good philosophers. (For instance, Dean Zimmerman says the open theist denies “that God has knowledge, at all times, … of everything that will occur.” [top of p.4]) (more…)